MuftiSays.com
 

Question & Answers

     Goto Question: #     You are here:    » Q & A Home » Marriage - Issues » Apeal
     
Submit Question
Submit Question
 
Categories
  Death - Janaazah (42)
  Food Related (200)
  Hajj / Umrah (44)
  Health & Medicine (28)
  History (18)
  Imaan / 'Aqaaid (121)
  Living in the West (89)
  Marriage - General (116)
  Marriage - Issues (29)
  Marriage - Over 13 (102)
  Miscellaneous (287)
  Ramadhan (111)
  Salaah - Performing (129)
  Salaah - Recitation (23)
  Salaah - Wudhu (81)
  Tafseer, Hadeeth, Du'aa (36)
  Todays Issues (101)
  Women (185)
  Zakaah (23)
 
What's new?

31st December 2011
Problem with cleanliness
Salaah - Wudhu

22nd December 2011
unclear short text message
Marriage - Over 13

22nd December 2011
witr prayer
Ramadhan

22nd December 2011
Qadr
Imaan / 'Aqaaid

22nd December 2011
mid-life cris
Imaan / 'Aqaaid

2nd December 2011
How to stop your self for being greedy
Zakaah

2nd December 2011
reciting quran during mensturation
Women

2nd December 2011
sallatulwitr
Ramadhan

29th November 2011
Space between nafil and fardh prayers
Salaah - Performing

29th November 2011
Advice on the bed i sleep, where i make love to my wife
Ramadhan

 
Ads
 
 
 

Apeal

Question date:   29th January 2007
From:   Apealing quick respo
Short URL:   http://qa.muftisays.com?3678
Notes:   No Notes
Question ID:   3678
Email this Page
Email this Page

Assalamu-a-laikum
I have read previously, that if a man and woman have seperated without talaaq been given they are still married no matter the time frame, i have also heard previously that nikah is broken if a man and wife do not have intercourse for a certain perios of time. Could this please be clarified?. As it does not make much sense.

Answer

Ulamaa
Ulamaa ID 04

Answer last updated on:
22nd July 2009
Answered by: Ulamaa ID 04

Website
Location: London

Bismillah

Al-jawab billahi at-taufeeq (the answer with Allah's guidance)



1) The Nikah will remain intact. Nikah will not be cancelled automatically without a valid Talaq.

Please refer to: http://www.muftisays.com/qa.php?viewpage=viewQA&question=2876


2) Not having intercourse for certain periods will not terminate the Nikah. Hence, Nikah will remain intact.

However, if the husband swears an oath that he would not have sexual intercourse with his wife for four months or more, or for an indefinite period, and he abides by his oath, in which case the wife will be deemed to have been divorced on the completion of four months. This is termed in Islamic Fiqh as Ila'.

Allah Ta'ala says,

"For those who swear a wait of four months from their women, If they revert back, Allah is Most-Forgiving." (2:226)

This verse lays down the rule that, in this situation, the husband has two options, either to break his oath by having intercourse with his wife before four months, and offer Kaffarah (expiation) of breaking oath, (in which case the marriage will continue), or (as mentioned above) to abide by his oath, in which case the wife will be divorced on the completion of four months.

This is to prevent the unjust custom whereby the husbands, by swearing such an oath, violated the rights of women. They neither gave her due rights, nor did they divorce her to let her marry someone else.

"If they revert back, Allah is Most-Forgiving" means that if they break their oath by having intercourse with her, Allah will forgive the sin of oath-breaking.



And Only Allah Ta'ala Knows Best.

--------------------------------------
Moulana Qamruz Zaman
London, UK

Search Q&A
Search for:
 
Recently Viewed Questions
Apeal
baby
why?
nikah
Umrah
Male
Bath
debt
Zakat
ruku
Jinns
 
Stats
Total Questions: 1793
 
Sponsors